I want to pose a question and get input. I have a theory recently that what I perceive to be normal sexual arousal is not actually normal sexual arousal. It occurred to me when I felt what can only be described as an "itch" to masturbate recently, which is not the norm for me, and this reminded me of what I used to feel when I was younger. Nowadays I just masturbate as routine, or because I get erections, or out of boredom basically. I feel the pressure buildup in my penis and I experience a climax, but I don't get a truly satisfying orgasm and rush in my head like I remember getting many years ago. I remember when I was younger and POIS-free, that "itch" was much stronger and the orgasm was much more satisfying, presumably because there was genuine sexual desire and an ability to actually satisfy it.
My theory is that what we perceive as Sexual Arousal (horniness) may not actually be normal sexual arousal. It seems to me that we when we are NOT in POIS, we are really just at a normal baseline (low sexual arousal). And so when we have an ejaculation/orgasm from that low baseline, it plunges us into the illness symptoms. We should not be having any ejaculation/orgasm if we do not truly have that genuinely strong itch for orgasm.
To test this theory, I have noticed that sometimes when I feel the need or desire to ejaculate/orgasm, if I just drink water, or exercise, or do something to vasodilate the blood vessels, it seems to eliminate temporarily what I thought was that urge to masturbate, indicating to me that the sensation I was feeling was not true sexual arousal, but rather some other lack of restraint mixed with an erection.
I am not sure what is required to go from Non-POIS, Non-Sexual Arousal baseline into Non-POIS Sexual Arousal. Obviously just trying to abstain for a long time is not usually enough although it does help sometimes.